I just don't understand where Roberts, Scalia & Co. have any business even looking at this law. Can anyone explain this to me?
The Fifteenth Amendment to the Constitution is very simple and straightforward:
SECTION 1. The right of citizens of the United States to vote shall
not be denied or abridged by the United States or by any state on
account of race, color, or previous condition of servitude.
SECTION 2. The Congress shall have power to enforce this article by appropriate legislation.
Okay, Congress has this power to enforce this Amendment with
'appropriate legislation.' What are the boundaries of
'appropriateness'? If it hasn't exceeded them by passing the Voting
Rights Act, then the Supreme Court should sit down and shut up.
Quite a few other Constitutional amendments have a section with essentially
the same language as Section 2, specifically the 13th, 14th, 19th, 23rd,
24th, and 26th Amendments, and the defunct 18th Amendment to the Constitution.
So,
how big a grant of authority to Congress is the power to enforce a
Constitutional amendment with appropriate legislation?
The Supreme Court, discussing the identical section of the 14th
Amendment in Ex Parte Virginia, 100 U.S. 339 (1879) said at 345-346 (emphasis mine):
It is not said the judicial power of the general government shall
extend to enforcing the prohibitions and to protecting the rights and
immunities guaranteed. It is not said that a branch of the government
shall be authorized to declare void any action of a State in violation
of the prohibitions. It is the power of Congress which has been
enlarged, Congress is authorized to enforce the prohibitions by
appropriate legislation. Some legislation is contemplated to make the
amendments fully effective. Whatever legislation is appropriate, that
is, adapted to carry out the objects the amendments have in view,
whatever tends to enforce submission to the prohibitions they contain,
and to secure to all persons the enjoyment of perfect equality of civil
rights and the equal protection of the laws against State denial or
invasion, if not prohibited, is brought within the domain of
congressional power.
"Whatever legislation is...adapted to carry out the objects the
amendments have in view...is brought within the domain of congressional
power."
That seems pretty clear to me.
How can the Court possibly say the Voting Rights Act fails that test? As best as I can tell, it is not for them to judge whether the VRA enforces the Fifteenth
Amendment in a way they like. It is not for them to judge whether the VRA enforces the Fifteenth
Amendment in a way that they regard as effective. It is not even for them to judge whether
the VRA's enforcement of the Fifteenth Amendment is superfluous at this
point in time. It is only for them to judge whether the VRA is "adapted
to carry out the objects the amendments have in view." Which it
obviously is.
The Supreme Court should sit down and shut up before they gut all seven Constitutional amendments that include this language.
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